I am trying to understand what causes ETF inflows and outflows. Is the following thinking correct?
If an investor wants to exit a big ETF position, he can sell the shares on an exchange or redeem his ETF shares. Suppose the ETF trades at $10. If the intraday NAV is $10.10 he will redeem his ETF shares, get the $10.10 of underlying stocks, and sell those. If the INAV is $9.90 he is better off selling the ETF shares on an exchange. Alternatively, a market-maker may redeem an ETF and sell the stocks when the ETF trades below INAV. So ETFs suffer outflows when someone wants to sell and the ETF is trading below INAV, or when a market-maker wants to arbitrage the spread between the ETF prices and INAV?
If an investor wants to exit a big ETF position, he can sell the shares on an exchange or redeem his ETF shares. Suppose the ETF trades at $10. If the intraday NAV is $10.10 he will redeem his ETF shares, get the $10.10 of underlying stocks, and sell those. If the INAV is $9.90 he is better off selling the ETF shares on an exchange. Alternatively, a market-maker may redeem an ETF and sell the stocks when the ETF trades below INAV. So ETFs suffer outflows when someone wants to sell and the ETF is trading below INAV, or when a market-maker wants to arbitrage the spread between the ETF prices and INAV?
