Was Jesus A Palestinian?
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That definition clearly qualifies Palestinians not only as a nation but as an example of nations. On the other hand, their occupiers came from all sort of other countries and places such as Argentina, Russia, Germany, France, UK, Spain, Morocco, Iraq, Iran, etc.
Yep. And the name of the nation is Jordan with whom the Palestinians share a common language, race, descent and history...Although in all fairness Syria is not really far behind, the Palis share a common language, race, descent and history with them as well. The Palestinians should be free to move to either of those two nations (or 20 other arab islamic nations with whom they share language, race, religion and history) and get residence and full citizenship rights there.
Meanwhile Israel is a sovereign jewish nation...Oh and btw, has it ever been mentioned in this thread that Jesus was jewish?
If Moses were to be back to life today, and you were to utter the word Jewish/Jews, Moses would say something like: "what do you mean, I do not understand those words"?
Words such Jewish/Jews were created long after Abraham, Moses, and others' lifetime.
So why would Jesus call himself Jewish first when he could have said he was among the children of israel (B'nai israel), or Palestinian in reference to where he lived and to the people among whom he lived.
Jesus certainly knew of the Palestinian Talmud. Note that it is called the Palestinian Talmud, and not the Jewish Talmud. There is also the Babylonian talmud. The two words (Pal. and Bab.) must then denote the areas/people where the talmus were written. Therefore, Palestine and Palestian, just like Babylon and Babylonian, existed at the time of Jesus and before his time.
Words such Jewish/Jews were created long after Abraham, Moses, and others' lifetime.
So why would Jesus call himself Jewish first when he could have said he was among the children of israel (B'nai israel), or Palestinian in reference to where he lived and to the people among whom he lived.
Jesus certainly knew of the Palestinian Talmud. Note that it is called the Palestinian Talmud, and not the Jewish Talmud. There is also the Babylonian talmud. The two words (Pal. and Bab.) must then denote the areas/people where the talmus were written. Therefore, Palestine and Palestian, just like Babylon and Babylonian, existed at the time of Jesus and before his time.
Yawn, you anti-Israel fringe really are desperate if you have to resort to this kind of nonsense in order to delegitimize Israel. I almost feel pity for you...well, on a second thought I really don't
Jews, Hebrews, Israelites - different names, same people, same religion. Cut the crap, you are not fooling anyone with this nonsense. It's their land, it's their religion, it's their Talmud, it's their Jesus.
Wrong, the majority of Palestinians are Jordanian, the remaining ones are Egyptian. "Palestinians" have never had a distinct culture, language, or ethnic identity. It's a manufactured identity, not an organic one. Before the 1960's anytime you used the term "Palestinian" people assumed you were talking about Jews. No one had ever heard of a "Palestinian people", outside of it's use as a reference to Jews.
Jews (and Palestinians) were dark according to the sacred texts:
Song of Solomon 1:5: Dark am I, yet lovely, O daughters of Jerusalem, dark like the tents of Kedar, like the tent curtains of Solomon.
Song of Solomon 1:5: Dark am I, yet lovely, O daughters of Jerusalem, dark like the tents of Kedar, like the tent curtains of Solomon.
The Song of Songs quote (see post above) says that you are a liar -- It is not me who is saying you are a liar, it is rather the quote and your post which say you are a liar.
Song of Solomon 1:5: Dark am I, yet lovely, O daughters of Jerusalem, DARK like the tents of Kedar, like the tent curtains of Solomon.
I wonder if the above information about Mohamed and Jerusalem was gotten from:
Song of Songs (Songs of Solomon): 5:16 (Transliteration):
"ḥikwō maməṯaqqîm wəḵullwō maḥămadîm zeh ḏwōḏî wəzeh rēâî bənwōṯ yərûšālāim:"