What you write of is pre ratification militias of the revolutionary war period.
Scalia jettisoned the part of the Second that includes the justification for the Amendment in terms of militias.
The Second reads:
“A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the
right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
I am going with this: (pg 24 of the Heller decision)
“security of "a free state” meant “security of a free polity,” not security
of each of the several States as the dissent below argued"
Logic and the above leaves me no choice other than to assume the Militia in the Second amendment is, as interpreted in Heller, not an individual state nor collective militia of individual states wanting to overthrow the government.
There is a place for such militias, but it is in extra-constitutional armed revolt, as for example the pre ratification militias that over through British rule.
If the militia of the second Amendment is a militia of states combining forces to protect the "security of a free State," i.e., defend the nation, then those militia have been replaced by the National Guard. One is the replacement for the other, but they are not the same. That I agree with.
My main point is that the Militia in the second Amendment can not possibly be "a citizen force that could oppose autocratic/tyrannical rule, be it state or fed" because those same citizens you write of are citizens of the state or federal government they oppose. Such a force would be extra-constitutional by definition, and therefore not be provided for in the Constitution. Such a post ratification militia would constitute revolt. These lunatics that attacked the Capital on Jan 6th were extra-constitutional. They constitute a revolutionary or insurrectionist force. They are not a 2nd Amendment militia.
The militias you write of did exist pre-ratification, and the tyranny they were fighting was that of the British Crown.
Which brings me to my main point. The Second Amendment is actually obsolete so long as one does not jettison the preforatory clause. Scalia, not so adroitly, did jettison the preforatory clause. That allowed him to retain the Operative clause in the Amendment and avoid having to deal with the prospect that the Amendment is obsolete, as I claim.
The last time we saw an extra-constitutional, organized, citizen militia in the U.S. was on Jan 6th.
You miss the point that "a militia necessary for the security of a free state" by definition can no longer be part of said state if the state is no longer free and/or threatening the freedom of the people. So no, they are not unconstitutional nor part of the state once the aforementioned breaks the contract with them and goes rogue against the people's freedoms.
Remember this was written on the heels of having overthrown autocratic rule and citizen's militias having played a pivotal role in the revolution. My history's fuzzy but I'm sure the Brits. likely tried to disarm the citizenry and as such the colonists realized the value of not complying and putting it on paper. It also flies in the face of every revolution by people worldwide who took arms to overthrow their oppressors (militias being "no longer of the state").
Yes, the Jan 6th yahoos would have considered themselves a constitutional militia because their delusion was such that a legislative coup was occurring. That or they intentionally wanted to overthrow the gov. in favor of autocratic rule. A militia need not be on the right side of history, especially if mass psychosis drives the mob. However by definition, since no such legislative coup occurred, they are rightfully called seditionists because no matter what kool-aid they were drinking, the reality was that the state was not going rogue or autocratic.

