The maths and concept escape me thus the question.
I just expected more call IV for potential jumps, like small biotech stocks.
For example, the May 17 ATM 42 Calls and Puts are at 48.96 and 48.52. Last on VXX is 41.71.
So why doesn't put call parity hold with biotech? Order flow imbalance?
Thanks.
The maths and concept escape me thus the question.
I just expected more call IV for potential jumps, like small biotech stocks.
For example, the May 17 ATM 42 Calls and Puts are at 48.96 and 48.52. Last on VXX is 41.71.
It does. The deep ITM put vol will match the deep OTM call vol (same-strike). An arb would occur of the stock is not HTB.
Dividends can result in different IVs for calls and puts (dividends can change the effective moneyness and expiration). Also, if a stock is hard to borrow, put-call parity doesn't necessarily hold.Then why aren't the IVs *exactly* the same? E.g. the ABX May14 17 call's IV is 36.2%, while the put's is only 33.3%
Then why aren't the IVs *exactly* the same? E.g. the ABX May14 17 call's IV is 36.2%, while the put's is only 33.3%