I'm guessing that poster didn't really understand the fundamental concept of CAPM based on their quote "The CAPM says there is a risk free rate (rf) to which a risk premium (rm * beta) is added. The total of rf and rm*beta gives the exp. rate of return." I'm not good enough to explain CAPM in a forum posting. However in broad terms I'll say that he/she a. probably didn't grasp the impact on total portfolio variance of combining negatively correlated assets, which requires a basic prob stats background, and b. has the intuitive concept of CAPM backwards, i.e. it doesn't "give" the expected rate of return of a security, it shows what expected rate of return is required given a security's systematic risk.Hmm. why is then the one guy in the linked discussions saying the following about CAPM and negative betas?:
"This is one big flaw which makes CAPM irrelevant and not applicable for negative betas." (May 9, 2012 at 4:47 AM)