Can someone provide me an intuitive explanation for why vega is highest for options ATM and why it gets lower for options OTM and ITM. Why do deep options have lower vega than the ATM counterparts????
I read this:
http://www.theoptionsguide.com/vega.aspx
and Natenberg... but the explanations don't really make intuitive sense. can someone help?
I read this:
http://www.theoptionsguide.com/vega.aspx
and Natenberg... but the explanations don't really make intuitive sense. can someone help?
