My employer gives me the choice to put some of my salary into the company option plan. The options they grant are 10 year, ATM options, which cannot be bought or sold outside. The only way to exit the position is either to exercise, or sell back to the company for the intrinsic value. They vest immediately, and are non-qualified. There are no dividends announced or expected, and no splits.
Some questions on valuing these:
1. Is using Black Scholes reasonable on these? Since there is no way to sell the options back early and collect the time value, it would seem they are more European than American. In order to collect the full value, the options need to be held until expiration.
2. Assuming the above is a reasonable approximation, what does delta, gamma, vega, theta, or rho even mean? Since the value moves in lock step with the underlying, it would appear there is a discontinuity around the strike price. I tried modelling them with delta being 1 if above the strike, and 0 below, but what happens if it's exactly ATM?
Some questions on valuing these:
1. Is using Black Scholes reasonable on these? Since there is no way to sell the options back early and collect the time value, it would seem they are more European than American. In order to collect the full value, the options need to be held until expiration.
2. Assuming the above is a reasonable approximation, what does delta, gamma, vega, theta, or rho even mean? Since the value moves in lock step with the underlying, it would appear there is a discontinuity around the strike price. I tried modelling them with delta being 1 if above the strike, and 0 below, but what happens if it's exactly ATM?