Quote from waxwing:
I agree with this both empirically (have observed it often) and philosophically (imposing a target price on the market has no value *to the market* (only helpful to your risk management calculations), so just imposes transaction costs).
But:-
This is interesting to me; on what basis do you make that statement? Is it empirical or theoretical(mathematical)?
For example if we have a histogram of returns with one peak at, let's say, +$1000 and one at -$1000, it doesn't follow that by setting a stop somewhere around, let's say, -$500, we will increase the expectancy of the system, as far as I can see - the price paths are hidden in histograms.
I also don't know exactly what you mean by saying that autocorrelations (in time series of returns?) give value to stops, but maybe I'm being dumb there![]()
two peak market: exit after the second peak.
positive autocorrelation: in a down trending market, exit whenever the market is lower, as its will be even lower the next period