Although I'm somewhat familiar with their calculation, I have never reasoned why divergence might indicate a reversal. I just know from many years of experience that there's a high degree of correlation between the two (at least in terms of momentum, or the lack thereof).Quote from yayt:
Why do Keltner & Bollinger divergences usually indicate a reversal? I mean, considering the formulas of each, what is the underlying reason behind this?
Fair enough. But, keep in mind that prices don't always hug the BB line in such a clean fashion. Sometimes, they go up or down in a step manner. Yes, a divergence will obviously occur when price moves away from the outer edge, but it requires more than one price for its cause. More often than not, the next price usually shoots up again to hug the BB line and the Keltner line will continue heading higher. By using the Keltner, I find it easier to see the changing sentiment underlying the shift in a given trend.Quote from Spxdes:
From your example chart, it seems as though you don't really need the keltner bands. Rather than when both bands are touching to show momentum strength, couldn't you just assume strength is there when price is hugging the bollinger bands?
Also, when the keltner bands and bollinger bands diverge, isn't it the same as price failing to touch the outer bollinger band?
Anyway, I'll be happy to discuss the merits of using Boll/Kelt elsewhere, but it really lies outside the scope of this thread.