Please help me understand why the sec doesn't require specifics on the puts Icahn sold to finance this FDO trade.
Here are the specifics of the calls and stock he bought, see items 5 and 6
http://www.sec.gov/Archives/edgar/data/34408/000092846414000058/fdosch13d060614.htm
Under item 6 put options the strike of the puts is not mentioned but with the calls, he bought the 38 strike in april 16, 2014.
"The per share exercise price of these call options is $38.00"
"1) Represents shares underlying American-style call options purchased by the applicable Reporting Person in the over the counter market."
Many thanks for any insight.
Here are the specifics of the calls and stock he bought, see items 5 and 6
http://www.sec.gov/Archives/edgar/data/34408/000092846414000058/fdosch13d060614.htm
Under item 6 put options the strike of the puts is not mentioned but with the calls, he bought the 38 strike in april 16, 2014.
"The per share exercise price of these call options is $38.00"
"1) Represents shares underlying American-style call options purchased by the applicable Reporting Person in the over the counter market."
Many thanks for any insight.