ULTIMATE HYPOCRISY: You can't 'naked short' certain equities, but 'Market Makers' can

Quote from Maverick74:


Think about it. If you have 1 million shares in the float and some hedge fund could sell 50 million shares short. That stock is going to ZERO!!!!! Supply and demand.

This is pure nonsense.
 
Quote from flytiger:

We know, and the data is readily available, that the bad short sellers are using the mm exemption to kill us.

No big deal. The SEC is captured: it will be the FEDs that end this. Then, a trader won't be able to hit the head without getting a hall pass from Harry Reid. Think I'm kidding? Wait.

I suggest that you look at OSTK, down 5 on hitting EPS estimates and beating revenues. They have to do it. A stock with 14 mm in the float owned 83% by insiders shouldn't act like this.

It is disgusting that people who represent the US Government are so corrupt. And btw, I said about two weeks ago money laundering was the new focus. Nice hearings yesteday, with Levin saying UBS should be shut down - a sentiment with which I readily agree.

The MM exemption is a sell out to the industry by the Cox brigade. Simple. SSETTLE THE TRADES. End of Story.

If the stock is cheap, buy it. All genuine investors WANT stock to fall, so they can buy it cheaper. What is the problem?

Please, everyone go out and short 50 times the float all the stocks in my portfolio down to 1 cent. I will then own 100% of the equity of about 30 blue chip corporations for $3.00. I will install my own board, have them declare a special dividend of $10 per share, and you will all get pounded like rented gerbils since you will be forced to pay out 100-1000 times your cost basis in cash. Or I could just wait for dividend time, the yield on a 1 cent stock would be in the tens of thousands of percent - good luck trying to pay that out if you are short from a few cents on 50 billion shares.
 
Quote from Maverick74:

It amazes me how people on this thread still don't understand the concept of short selling and naked short selling.

Let me try this one more time and let me keep the math simple. Say Company XYZ has 10 million shares in the float. Then hedge fund ABC comes along with the stock at $20 a share and decides to drive the stock to 0 after they have taken a legitimate short position of say 500k shares. So they go into the market place and sell 50 million shares. Now one of two things will happen. Either the stock will go to zero or someone will actually come in and be the counterparty to these sales. Now, let's say mutual fund DEF comes along and buys 50 million shares from fund ABC.

Now here is the question. What does DEF actually own. Assuming ABC was able to get off 10 million shares of available stock, where is the other 40 million coming from? Fund DEF doesn't own anything. They think they own 50 million shares of stock XYZ. But what they really own is 10 million shares of stock and 40 million shares of worthless paper. So now fund DEF requests the actual stock certificates and there are none to be had for the other 40 million shares.

Are you guys starting to see the problem now? What the f*ck did DEF buy? They wrote a check for 100's of millions of dollars to buy stock. But they only own 10 million shares, not 50 million!!!

It doesn't take a genus to see the danger on this and why the SEC requires the shares to actually be located within 3 trading days. If you guys still don't get it after this example, then it's pointless to really carry on this conversation.

Replace "hedge fund" with market maker. Tell me how does the situation change?

Imagine a situation where value investor X wants to buy the entire float of a company in 1 day (e.g. a market crash). A market maker ends up long deltas due to the crash, so they hedge some stock without a locate. At the end of the day the value investor has bought the entire float. The market maker is short an additional number of shares that do not exist. What now?

The market maker's transaction was just as fraudulent as the hedge fund in your example.

Another example - what if a market maker sells calls in a volume greater than the float? That is just as fraudulent, since they could never deliver on the amount if all calls went into the money.
 
Quote from ByLoSellHi:

EXACTLY.

I'm haven't resolved my preference should or shouldn't be legal. It's a complicated issue, and yes, good companies can be ganged up on and punished unfairly, just because they are thinly traded and therefore inherently vulnerable - this is especially true when there is concerted effort among many funds.

Before the SEC goes and adds another idiotic layer of regulation, and an arbitrary one at that (a list of 19 securities that only 'market makers' can short naked), they should GIVE THE TRADERS AND INVESTORS WHAT THEY'VE BEEN ASKING FOR FOREVER - A CRACKDOWN ON THE MASSIVE FRAUD THAT IS FTDs!!!!!!!!!

Useless, lame, impotent and incompetent (if not fraudulent) - that's the SEC.

Mav, your further explanation doesn't respond to an allegation I made earlier - do you or do you not think that the chosen few market makers that are exempt from the naked shorting rule on the new list of 19 will figure out how to arbitrage that exemption into a massive, profit making vehicle?

Naked shorting should be totally legal, and failure to deliver should result in criminal conviction. Just like writing a cheque. A cheque is a 3 day promissory note - you don't have to have the money when you write it, but if you don't have it within 3 days then you committed a crime of fraud. Same with shorting a stock IMO.

There is no excuse for allowing one class of market participants to commit fraud by shorting stock and then failing to deliver. There is no rationale for calling short selling fraud if the short seller does actually deliver by the settlement date.

So it's very simple - make FTD an explicit crime like writing a bum cheque for $X million. By current legal comparables, that would result in 5-20 years jail time for the short-seller in question. That would be a reasonable deterrent.
 
Quote from Maverick74:

It amazes me how people on this thread still don't understand the concept of short selling and naked short selling.

Let me try this one more time and let me keep the math simple. Say Company XYZ has 10 million shares in the float. Then hedge fund ABC comes along with the stock at $20 a share and decides to drive the stock to 0 after they have taken a legitimate short position of say 500k shares. So they go into the market place and sell 50 million shares. Now one of two things will happen. Either the stock will go to zero or someone will actually come in and be the counterparty to these sales. Now, let's say mutual fund DEF comes along and buys 50 million shares from fund ABC.

Now here is the question. What does DEF actually own. Assuming ABC was able to get off 10 million shares of available stock, where is the other 40 million coming from? Fund DEF doesn't own anything. They think they own 50 million shares of stock XYZ. But what they really own is 10 million shares of stock and 40 million shares of worthless paper. So now fund DEF requests the actual stock certificates and there are none to be had for the other 40 million shares.

Are you guys starting to see the problem now? What the f*ck did DEF buy? They wrote a check for 100's of millions of dollars to buy stock. But they only own 10 million shares, not 50 million!!!

It doesn't take a genus to see the danger on this and why the SEC requires the shares to actually be located within 3 trading days. If you guys still don't get it after this example, then it's pointless to really carry on this conversation.

i understand your point but your example has zero basis in reality. i'm just going to guess that the other 40 million shares traded would be broken because they weren't real. who knows how it would be handled but i would guess the stock would be halted for a few days to figure everything out. there would also be a huge case of market manipulation brought against fund ABC if they were that dumb. further they would be massively underwater in their manipulative position.

there are just so many realistic holes to your point that make it worthless to discuss what you are talking about unless you have a specific example.
 
Quote from Cutten:

If a daytrader sees a spread trade opportunity, he needs to be able to sell 5k shares of stock to get off the short leg. I don't understand what the SEC's beef is. You think any daytrader will spread two stocks if he can't put on one leg of his position? Are you insane?

Repeat the same argument for any short seller who sees an overvalued stock.

What makes option market maker's profits and liquidity provision any more sacrosanct than any other market participants? Daytraders and short sellers provide just as much liquidity as anyone else trading the same size. ANYONE who buys and sells is a de factor market maker.

Calm down Cutten. Daytraders don't have to locate because they buy in before the close. However, interesting that you bring up daytrading. I worked for one of the most notorious daytrading firms on Wall Street and we conducted our fair share of bear raids on stocks intra-day thanks to the good old bullet that allowed us to sell stocks short on a downtick. We absolutely anniliated stocks.

It's amazing the amount of damage that can be done even on an intra-day basis with no uptick rule and not having to locate stock on a short sale. In theory, our bullets were suppose to be conversions that had us long stock/long puts/short calls but the transaction was fictional and never existed. Obviously the SEC did away with bullets and for good reason. But it explains how the process works on a micro basis none the less.
 
Quote from Maverick74:

Calm down Cutten. Daytraders don't have to locate because they buy in before the close. However, interesting that you bring up daytrading. I worked for one of the most notorious daytrading firms on Wall Street and we conducted our fair share of bear raids on stocks intra-day thanks to the good old bullet that allowed us to sell stocks short on a downtick. We absolutely anniliated stocks.

It's amazing the amount of damage that can be done even on an intra-day basis with no uptick rule and not having to locate stock on a short sale. In theory, our bullets were suppose to be conversions that had us long stock/long puts/short calls but the transaction was fictional and never existed. Obviously the SEC did away with bullets and for good reason. But it explains how the process works on a micro basis none the less.

care to provide an example? :p
 
Quote from robbie380:

care to provide an example? :p

Example? We did this to thousands of stocks. LOL. We weren't the only ones. Everyone was doing it. It was free money.
 
Quote from Maverick74:

Example? We did this to thousands of stocks. LOL. We weren't the only ones. Everyone was doing it. It was free money.

1000's eh? how far back are you talking? post-ene? married puts? and you guys never had any compliance issues?
 
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