Quote from NickelScalper:
It seems that if the Imaginary Trend were a reality, the following challenge question would have been answered by now:
What is a reliable method that can be applied to past price action to determine a usefully large positive or negative number d such that (p1-p0)>=d, where p0 is the current market price and p1 will be the market price in the near future?
I'm looking for an answer to be posted here in plain text form. The proof of the answer is also to be posted here, as real time trading calls that specify on what basis the proposed method is being invoked and a target price.
Attention: There's no need to give up anything secret. Surely, someone must know of a second or third rate example that's beneath their dignity to employ.
Quote from OddTrader:
Please notice the key word "Standard". Better try something different. Your analyses and results/ conclusions would be quite "Normal" (read "Common").
Probably only the best mathematical statisticians would know and understand well how to choose the right tools and correct statistical concepts when they do this kind of tests.
No wonder why they, particularly from some good places, are so short of supply (and paid very well) in the markets.
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Quote from ProfLogic:
Amazing how I see that without an MA line and you need to calculate it.

Quote from ProfLogic:
I will repeat myself. Page 62, last response and page 64, response to Hank. Read it, calculate it & program it if you can. It's trademarked anyway. If you can't figure it out, not my problem. You wanted proof, you didn't say anything about educating you to understand it. I have a programmer that not only flowcharted it but programmed it. Do you understand that statement?

Interesting results.Quote from 5yrtrader:
This is so stupid. Any trader that makes money has to trade with the "trend," by definition. There shouldn't even be a discussion about this. This thread has been bothering me and it keeps making it to the top of the list, so I am going to prove it.
I ran a system in which the trader gets long if the 50 day MA is above the 200 day MA, short if the 50 day MA is below the 200 day MA, with stops. Risk 1% of equity per trade across 50 futures markets from 1995 to 2000. Beginning equity is $2,000,000
Results
Sharpe Ratio = 1.7 Max Drawdown= 28.21 Profit = $18,091,762
% of times stops hit 48%
So made a profit but stop was hit 48% of the time. Naysayers are saying that this a 50/50 chance with stops. If that were true then a system doing the opposite should have simlilar results, right?
Short if 50 day MA is above 200 day MA, long if 50 day is below the 200 day MA. Same stops as before, risking 1% of equity acroos the same 50 futures markets, 1995 to 2000, beginning equity is $2,000,000.
Sharpe Ratio = -2.06 Max Drawdown = 97.23% Profits = ($1,933,262)
% of times stops hits 78%
It seems that trading with the trend does have a significant effect. If anyone wants to challenge these results please do.
:eek:
Quote from hank rollins:
how do you know this ? another empty proclamation. i am trying to keep this conversation away from personal attacks and the gutter--- i see i was set up by your question--- that will get you nowhere, fast.
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