Quote from logic_man:
Every trade I put on is based on a specific hypothesis about how the market will behave in the future based on the relevant past action (duh, freaking obviously, since that is all anyone can do unless they have a crystal ball), including a price beyond which it should not go. If it goes beyond that price, my REACTION is to exit because the trade has now disproven the hypothesis. Your idea that suddenly the market will reverse one tick beyond my stop and go in my original direction is NOT the norm, so using that as the basis for decision making is empirically invalid. Again, if you look at the probabilities and the actual distribution of prices, you'll see that the "one tick beyond a stop and then reverse" is highly unlikely and who knows for certain how far beyond the stop it will advance before reversing? No one knows, so why pretend that I do and expose myself to addition risk of adverse excursion? I'm not buying and holding here.
My system is so specific that even a deviation of one tick or one second of time can negate a signal. It's more like engineering than anything else. Just like an engineer wouldn't let someone build a bridge an extra inch beyond the specifications, I don't let trades move an extra tick beyond where the hypothesis says it should go because, within the limits of the hypothesis, I know the probabilities of what the outcomes are, while outside those limits I am exposed to the "fat tails" of the market. My risk has gone from strictly defined to undefined (or, if I held to zero, it's defined as the size of my initial position. Again, I've said earlier that zero is a valid stop, just not one I prefer to use). Why would one go from strictly defined risk to undefined risk? It makes no sense, especially since in order to transition from that defined risk to undefined risk, you've already experienced an adverse excursion, i.e. the market has already been telling you that you are wrong. Unless you have a highly-likely reason to believe that mean reversion will kick in and eventually put your trade into profitability, on what basis are you holding it?
Just give an honest answer to this question: If you had gone short in March 2009 after the bottom, would you still be holding that position? On what basis? That is the kind of "fat tail" you are exposed to without a stop.
If you can use the extreme example of a "one tick beyond your stop and reverse" to try to invalidate my perspective, surely I can use March 2009's bottom to invalidate yours.
you are basing your exit if stop is hit on price action previous to opening your position.
but you are basing your exit when profit is made on price action previous to opening your position, plus the price action between opening your position and profit target reached.
since you say you exit based on price action, or stop, i think you never have a set profit target in mind, also it seems you never adjust your stop.
this means you have two exit systems, not one, and this makes no sense. maybe your system is profitable but your system really makes no sense.
if you go short the march bottom based on system, and system doesnt tell you to get out after a 100% run, your system sucks. it doesnt mean stops are good.
