I was reading this academic paper on distinction between spot and future transactions. It says that if trades with stocks occur intraday (and are not held till the end of the day), it should be considered as future transactions and not spot transactions (physical delivery, clearing and settlement are not made).
How does IRS deal with intraday or HFT trading when positions with stocks are opened and closed intraday? Do they say - delivery was not made, settlement was not made, cash was not exchanged? Or do they say it doesn't matter - it's treated the same as stock that was bought today and sold 3 months later?
Excerpt from the paper: https://mises.org/library/next-gene...mics-essays-honor-joseph-t-salerno/html/p/537
"Therefore, if high-frequency trades are to be understood as trades that are agreed upon but never paid for and delivered, they can no longer be understood as spot transactions and can conceptually be defined more meaningfully as future transactions. Future transactions differ from spot transactions in that they are agreed in the present but paid for and delivered at a future date, so that the time lag between the agreement on prices and quantities on one side, and the clearing and settlement on the other, is no longer irrelevant for economic and legal theory. In terms of property rights, spot and future transactions are different in esse. Spot transactions are the exchange of property rights over present goods, whereas future transactions are the exchange of claims on property rights on future goods.
If it is clear that high-frequency trades are to be considered as futures, what about trading positions that are kept open until the settlement date, i.e., transactions that will indeed be paid for and delivered? An important issue to highlight is that nothing makes it possible to distinguish ex ante a high-frequency trade from any other trade. When a buy or sell order is executed on the market (“execution” here referring not to the fact that a trade is paid for and delivered, but merely to the fact that a buyer is matched with a seller, i.e., that an agreement on prices and quantities is reached), nothing makes it possible to identify trades of two different types as there cannot exist prescience, at least for an external observer, about whether the position will be liquidated or not before the settlement date. All trades are potentially high-frequency trades ex ante. When there is no real-time settlement, all trades must therefore be regarded as futures in the first place, so as to account for the institutional lag between the time of order execution and the time of clearing and settlement. Indeed, the possibility that a particular trade be high-frequency always exists before the settlement time. In this context, trading positions that are left open over at least one settlement date can be considered similar to future contracts that are kept until maturity, whereas trading positions that are liquidated before settlement date are akin to future contracts that are never delivered."
How does IRS deal with intraday or HFT trading when positions with stocks are opened and closed intraday? Do they say - delivery was not made, settlement was not made, cash was not exchanged? Or do they say it doesn't matter - it's treated the same as stock that was bought today and sold 3 months later?
Excerpt from the paper: https://mises.org/library/next-gene...mics-essays-honor-joseph-t-salerno/html/p/537
"Therefore, if high-frequency trades are to be understood as trades that are agreed upon but never paid for and delivered, they can no longer be understood as spot transactions and can conceptually be defined more meaningfully as future transactions. Future transactions differ from spot transactions in that they are agreed in the present but paid for and delivered at a future date, so that the time lag between the agreement on prices and quantities on one side, and the clearing and settlement on the other, is no longer irrelevant for economic and legal theory. In terms of property rights, spot and future transactions are different in esse. Spot transactions are the exchange of property rights over present goods, whereas future transactions are the exchange of claims on property rights on future goods.
If it is clear that high-frequency trades are to be considered as futures, what about trading positions that are kept open until the settlement date, i.e., transactions that will indeed be paid for and delivered? An important issue to highlight is that nothing makes it possible to distinguish ex ante a high-frequency trade from any other trade. When a buy or sell order is executed on the market (“execution” here referring not to the fact that a trade is paid for and delivered, but merely to the fact that a buyer is matched with a seller, i.e., that an agreement on prices and quantities is reached), nothing makes it possible to identify trades of two different types as there cannot exist prescience, at least for an external observer, about whether the position will be liquidated or not before the settlement date. All trades are potentially high-frequency trades ex ante. When there is no real-time settlement, all trades must therefore be regarded as futures in the first place, so as to account for the institutional lag between the time of order execution and the time of clearing and settlement. Indeed, the possibility that a particular trade be high-frequency always exists before the settlement time. In this context, trading positions that are left open over at least one settlement date can be considered similar to future contracts that are kept until maturity, whereas trading positions that are liquidated before settlement date are akin to future contracts that are never delivered."
