I would appreciate your input and opinion on the following:
It seems that for bear markets tied to large economic problems the time to bottom is around 2 years. Data mining with a sparse sample I know, but useful? I really don't know, just wondering since we are 1 year from the top.
Also could someone with historical insight add more:
1929-1932 2.5 years to bottom
2000-2003 ~2.5 years mild recession, historic bubble
1972-1974 2 years
1991-1992 not a bear market
1981-82 1.5 years
1987 not a recession
1956-1958 2 years
1953 not a bear market as far as I can tell
1969-70 ~1.3 years, but bear market only- no recession
It seems that for bear markets tied to large economic problems the time to bottom is around 2 years. Data mining with a sparse sample I know, but useful? I really don't know, just wondering since we are 1 year from the top.
Also could someone with historical insight add more:
1929-1932 2.5 years to bottom
2000-2003 ~2.5 years mild recession, historic bubble
1972-1974 2 years
1991-1992 not a bear market
1981-82 1.5 years
1987 not a recession
1956-1958 2 years
1953 not a bear market as far as I can tell
1969-70 ~1.3 years, but bear market only- no recession