Quote from Mr Subliminal:
Let the cards be WW, RW and RR.
(1) You maintain that with a red card lying on the floor, the probability that it is RR is 50%, and the probability it is RW is 50%.
(2) By symmetry, it would follow that if the white card is lying on the floor, the probability that it is WW is also 50%, and the probability it is RW is 50%.
(3) Now you must also agree with me that even before this experiment is conducted, the probability that the card lying on the floor will be red (or white) is 50%.
(4) So what in effect you're saying is that there is a 50% chance the card on the floor will be red and if this is the case (ie. the card is red) then there is a 50% chance it's either RR or RW. Similarly, there is a 50% chance the card on the floor will be white and if this is the case (ie. the card is white) then there is a 50% chance it's either WW or RW.
(5) From (4) it follows directly that the probability of drawing RR is 50%*50% = 1/4, the probability of drawing WW is 50%*50% = 1/4, and the probability of drawing RW is 50%*50% + 50%*50% = 1/2.
(6) But we know that the probability of drawing RR = 1/3, the probability of drawing WW = 1/3 and the probability of drawing RW = 1/3.
(7) From (5) and (6) it follows that (1) and (2) must be false.
(Proof ad absurdum)
(QED)
Thanks, I can see that this is true. I still fail to see a mistake in my reasoning, though.
