Quote from morganist:
It is interesting I recently had a discussion with the central bank of Bahrain on a similiar situation. Would you like me to share the discussion with you.
Sure, that I help me understand what it is you are driving at. But to go back and finish my comments earlier. I fully agree that Fed actions can cause inflation, however my main point was that, generally speaking, Fed actions are not the true genesis, or root cause, or "engine", if you prefer, of inflation. It's a fine point, I admit, and may be coming from my own distorted way of looking at things. But I see the Fed, when they are acting responsibly and in the best interests of the economy and the country, as merely responding to the current economic situation thrust upon them by Congress' fiscal policies. So in my mind, I see Congress as the engine of excess inflation, whereas I see the Fed generally as the source of what we can call the base rate of inflation-- that one or two percent that they aim for. And when we talk about inflation, we are talking about excess inflation over and above that small, and sustainable base rate.
That said, without question there may be occasions when the genesis of inflation lies with the Fed itself. For example in the case of Fed screw-ups that later result in excess inflation as part of the effort to clean up the mess they have created. That is a point of view that has some validity with regard to the recent financial crisis.
If you read Soros you will learn that he believes that the recent crisis was avoidable, and so do I. But in spite of repeated warnings and even the acknowledgement by Greenspan himself of excesses in the mortgage market, he did absolutely nothing. I have concluded that it was his steadfast belief in market equilibrium theory that led him to ignore the warnings, and do nothing. (Of course there is a political dimension to these situations as well as an economic one.)
Now regarding your article re QE versus targeting of the interest rate directly via conventional means.
It is this paragraph of yours, I am struggling to understand:
"When debasement occurs it is an expected loss. Quantitative Easing will have a more dramatic impact on the currency value than a reduction in the interest rate because it is a real term loss not an increase in the domestic money supply of one nation through credit expansion. When money supply is increased through interest rates the currency value is changed by the volume of money supply and the impact it has on exchange rates. When money supply is increased through QE the integrity of the currency itself is questioned decreasing value."
I'm not convinced this is correct, but neither am I convinced it isn't. Perhaps you can clarify exactly what you are getting at here. Here is the problem for me. It seems to me that you are talking about two different ways to accomplish essentially the same thing. That thing being expansion of credit and making more money available in the economy. One way is through targeting interest rates, and the other is through quantitative easing to put more liquid capital into banks. Either of these, it seems to me, but perhaps I am wrong, should have the potential of producing some inflation, i.e. by making more money available, and another way of saying "inflation" is "currency debasement". What is currency worth. It is worth what we can buy with it. What I am not understanding is why there is a much difference between debasement brought about by making borrowing more attractive via targeting interest rates directly versus making more money available for lending at an already low rate. It seems that to the extent that either of these actions work as intended they both have the potential to debase the currency relative to other currencies. I do understand that there is a fundamental difference between making borrowing more attractive by lowering interest rates and trying to get banks to loan more at already low rates by increasing the liquidity of their capital. It seems the second approach only works if the amount of capital that banks have available to lend is a limiting factor, and neither approach works well if there isn't much demand for credit. What am I missing here?