The best options strategies

LTCM was a Black Swan event (Asian Crisis, Russia's default etc.).
It is IMO also unclear whether they had used any hedging, or were doing casino-gambling, or maybe a pre-planned fraud?...

I think most here are more interested in the more general case, ie. under normal market conditions.
No, apart from the losses in their highly leveraged fixed income "arb" portfolio, LTCM also lost quite a lot of money on options. AFAIK, their problems in that space resulted from them foolishly and vigorously denying that options markets could exhibit a smile. It was a typical case of academic hubris. That's the bit, I believe, that OddTrader may be referring to.
 
No, apart from the losses in their highly leveraged fixed income "arb" portfolio, LTCM also lost quite a lot of money on options. AFAIK, their problems in that space resulted from them foolishly and vigorously denying that options markets could exhibit a smile. It was a typical case of academic hubris. That's the bit, I believe, that OddTrader may be referring to.

I think they were short a ton of SPX variance and the whole street knew it.
 
Longthewings,

I really appreciate your comments. Thank you for your comments in language and terms that I can understand.

In general, for a call option buyer, when you hold an option to expiration, P&L = final stock price - strike price - option price (the reverse is true for option seller).

If I understand you correctly, if you hedge, the outcome is different. For your hedge to return greater/less than the risk free rate the options you purchased/sold must be mispriced? i.e., if you hold the contract to expiration and continuously delta hedge, assuming Black Scholes, then,

Expected P&L (option buyer) = Black-Scholes Value (actual volatility) - Black-Scholes Value (implied volatility)?

Is the Expected P&L over and above the risk free rate? Otherwise when actual volatility = implied volatility the return will be zero instead of the risk free rate. I am ignoring transaction costs of course.

Another question, if you hold the contract to expiration, is the actual volatility the same as the historical volatility for the period?

I appreciate any comments from anyone here so we all can learn.
Regards,

Yes, the outcome is different in terms of P&L variance. An unhedged ATM call option is just a ramp payoff to the upside. You will lose the premium paid or breakeven the majority of the time (say 82% of the time). But when you get a hit (the other 18% of the time), it's significantly bigger. The weighted average comes out to the original expected P&L [(Actual-Implied)*Vega]. A dynamically hedged call option will result in the same expectation, but a different variance profile. Hedging will make both your losses and your wins smaller, shrinking the tails of your P&L distribution. In the limit (continuous hedging), the P&L will converge to the expectation with 0 variance.

Yes. The contracts must be mispriced. It all starts with price.

When actual = implied, the expected P&L = rf rate.

The actual volatility is forward looking. If I buy a 30 day option right now, I need to hedge with the volatility that will be realized over the next 30 days. You will only know what actual volatility was at expiry. So you have to have some type of vol forecast for your hedging and/or spread off risk with other options.
 
Yes, the outcome is different in terms of P&L variance. An unhedged ATM call option is just a ramp payoff to the upside. You will lose the premium paid or breakeven the majority of the time (say 82% of the time). But when you get a hit (the other 18% of the time), it's significantly bigger. The weighted average comes out to the original expected P&L [(Actual-Implied)*Vega]. A dynamically hedged call option will result in the same expectation, but a different variance profile. Hedging will make both your losses and your wins smaller, shrinking the tails of your P&L distribution. In the limit (continuous hedging), the P&L will converge to the expectation with 0 variance.

Yes. The contracts must be mispriced. It all starts with price.

When actual = implied, the expected P&L = rf rate.

The actual volatility is forward looking. If I buy a 30 day option right now, I need to hedge with the volatility that will be realized over the next 30 days. You will only know what actual volatility was at expiry. So you have to have some type of vol forecast for your hedging and/or spread off risk with other options.


This is a really good, concise explanation of edge (realized less implied)*vega, and the convergence to expectancy on hedge frequency. Think about the opportunity cost of capital; commissions; missed hedges; microstructure, gaps...
 
No, apart from the losses in their highly leveraged fixed income "arb" portfolio, LTCM also lost quite a lot of money on options. AFAIK, their problems in that space resulted from them foolishly and vigorously denying that options markets could exhibit a smile. It was a typical case of academic hubris. That's the bit, I believe, that OddTrader may be referring to.

Weren't they primarily in var swaps? Did they short puts outright as well?
 
Longthewings, newwurldmn, Martinhoul, destriero, botpro ...

Thanks for the insightful responses. They partially explained why I was not getting good outcome with covered calls, covered puts, calendar... (did worst than my B&H portfolio).

I did well with long calls though, because the general market was going up in 2013 and 2014, somewhat OK in 2015, not because I had some magic formula. :sneaky: But I got killed in 2016 with long calls.:(
 
Weren't they primarily in var swaps? Did they short puts outright as well?
Yep, they were involved big time in Europe... When I say "involved" I mean that it was rather comically large and misguided at times from all the stories I heard. Maybe it was small fry relative to all the other stuff, but I extrapolate from that.
 
Dynamic delta hedging MIGHT reduce the variance of your P&L, depending on what you are trading. How do you even know if you're calculating your deltas correctly? What vol do you use to even calculate it? What confidence do you have that your vol input is correct?
Hmm. are you serious with these questions? Because HV can easily be calculated from the historical prices of the underlying.
And from the market premium one can calc the IV, together with delta and many others...
So, I don't get your point here.

Ok so you've hedged delta (most likely incorrectly since you don't even know the correct vol to calculate your hedge ratio)
What? You must be joking! Vola calc and calc of all the greeks is the simplest to do.
Really, I think you must mean someone else but me, eventhough your above reply was made quoting my posting.
 
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Yes. The contracts must be mispriced. It all starts with price.
If this imples that hedging is useful only when the entry is done with a mispriced price, then I must say it's complete utter BS.
Entry price, be it fair or mispriced, is irrelevant for hedging, as the delta is the main player, with optionally some of the other option greeks...
 
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If this imples that hedging is useful only when the entry is done with mispriced price, then I must say it's utter BS.
Entry price, be it fair or mispriced, is irrelevant for hedging, as the delta is the main player, with optionally some of the other option greeks...



  • What is a mis-priced option?
  • What is a fair-priced option?
Can those terms be defined in anyway?





:)
 
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