It may not be strict enough but to be tested it has to be classified which is exactly as I have done. Granted I could be picking up on late day reversals but again a market, which opens on it lows and closes on its highs or vice versa is a Trend Day.I think your definition of a trend day is not strict enough. A trend is structural, higher highs, closes at the highs of the day ect..ect.. You could be picking up late day reversals that look nothing like a clear trend.
The filters are exactly in my post above I am classifying a market as having an Up Trend Day being one that opens within 10% or 25% of its lows and closes within 10% or 25% of its lows - vice versa for Down Trend Days.I am not clear on your % filters either.
The histograms are showing the distribution of Opening Range as a percentage of the 10 day average range on what I have classified as Trend days or Non Trend days. So if the above were true you would see a bulge in distribution occurring with opening ranges below 30% which we are not. This makes absolute sense to me as a Trend Day by definition should move of the open quickly, hence the opening range is in all likelihood going to be larger than a Non Trend Day.What Mav originally said in an extremely strict sense was that trend days tend to happen with an Opening Range LESS THAN 20% of the 5 Day ATR. In my study I looked at everything under 30%.
My last paragraph should clear this up as the Histograms show all OR%'s but of a 10 day as oppose to what you suggest which is a 5 day.Again I am not clear on how you put this study together, you want to find out what percentage the Opening Range is of the 5 Day ATR. Then filter those results for OR%<30.
There is no point in filtering for opening ranges <30% of the 10 day average range. By being selective you cannot see the the whole distribution and therefore are unable to prove if its statistically significant or not.
Perhaps you can share your results as I have done so we can see where we are not understanding each other.
Thanks.