Excellent and detailed analysis Volpri. Really enjoy going through your trades and thought process.MY T#3 was a combination averaging down and martingaling. Lets review. Price goes from BO (bar 7:30) to channel to TR to a SUCCESSFUL BO south of the trading range. So what is the new C#1? It is a BO of the established TR! What is the new C#2? A trend south that started in the TR! What is the new C#3? Starting at bar 9:45 we get 3 bear bars and one doji with the last bear bar being the BO bar south of the range. And they are increasing in size. That is the new C#3! Remember context #3 is the immediate context.
So, what happens usually after a BO? A PB. What happens when you got a BO that has a PB?Well that is when the channel phase starts! So by bar 10:20 which was the PB bar we see another new C#1 starts. Namely a channel. Bar 10:20 was the PB and the start of a bear channel. Anticipating that the BO (bars 10:00 through 10:15) would have a PB but also that the BO was deep enough that price would probably not make it back into the channel anytime soon I saw a chance to average down on a coming PB. Why did I anticipate the bar 10:20 PB? Look at bars 10:00, 10:05, 10:10, and 10:15. While they are part of the BO they all show buying buying pressure coming in by virtue of having tails on the bottom of each bar and the extent of the overlapping of the bars, indicating probing by both bears and bulls. BO south? yes, but also pressures from the bulls. That is what is causing the overlapping bars. A back and forth from both sides. Bears want the BO to continue. Bulls want to make it fail. That bar 10:20 (the bull PB bar) was the strongest effort by the bulls to make the BO fail. I reasoned I could add to my losing position and if I martingaled I could get out with a profit on an even smaller move back south than just averaging down. So I doubled up on that last entry.
I'm a bit puzzled by trade 3 though. Using your chart to make my point, and counting the bars where price closes outside of the trading range. You say here that it was a successful BO, but elsewhere you say that price will usually return into the TR within 5 bars. So why are you shorting on the 4th bar instead of looking for longs? Why did you call this a successful BO so soon without waiting for 5 bars to close outside of the TR? Thanks!
