Hypothetical:
- I am a Canadian citizen (i.e. taxed based on residency, not citizenship)
- I give up my rented apartment in Canada (and file the required exit-tax paperwork), and spend 2021 traveling the world, spending 1 week in 52 different countries, entering each as a tourist.
- I trade while I am traveling.
- I presume there's a general principle that one cannot be a tax resident of no jurisdiction(?)
- Is there some kind of default presumption of tax residency in one's country of citizenship when one doesn't meet the tax residency test of any other country?
- Could I simply choose the most tax-advantageous of the 52 countries I travel to as my tax 'home' for 2021? If not, does changing the time spent in each from 52 x 1 week to 26 x 2 weeks, or 12 x 1 month change this analysis?
- Is there some kind of default presumption of tax residency in one's country of citizenship when one doesn't meet the tax residency test of any other country?
- Could I simply choose the most tax-advantageous of the 52 countries I travel to as my tax 'home' for 2021? If not, does changing the time spent in each from 52 x 1 week to 26 x 2 weeks, or 12 x 1 month change this analysis?
It can be done though I'm just assuming Canada is somewhat similar to the UK.
What you are writing here is not "standard" for each country. It can be misleading for OP.