Momoney:
To get the 80% probability, you are multiplying .9 by .9. The part that I think makes this confusing is that only one side can expire ITM at expiration. So I'm not sure that the probability would be 81% (assuming each spread is 90% probability of expiring in the money).
I think Murray is a statistics teacher. I'd be curious to know what he thinks the probability of an IC expiring OTM is when each spread has a probability of 90% of expiring OTM.
It's the fact that only one side can expire ITM that confuses me.
To get the 80% probability, you are multiplying .9 by .9. The part that I think makes this confusing is that only one side can expire ITM at expiration. So I'm not sure that the probability would be 81% (assuming each spread is 90% probability of expiring in the money).
I think Murray is a statistics teacher. I'd be curious to know what he thinks the probability of an IC expiring OTM is when each spread has a probability of 90% of expiring OTM.
It's the fact that only one side can expire ITM that confuses me.
Quote from momoneythansens:
Rdemyan,
I hear what you are saying but I'm not sure I fully agree with your assessment. With an IC, I agree there is no additional RISK
