I may or may not have solved the mystery, you tell me.
When I did my intial calculation I used the IV for the SPX itself. I redid the calculation using the IV of the 1170 put. I came up with 15.9 going this route. This makes the delta a rough approximation for the probability. So, am I correct in using the IV of the option as opposed to the underlying in my calculation?
ryan
When I did my intial calculation I used the IV for the SPX itself. I redid the calculation using the IV of the 1170 put. I came up with 15.9 going this route. This makes the delta a rough approximation for the probability. So, am I correct in using the IV of the option as opposed to the underlying in my calculation?
ryan
Quote from ryank:
I have a 1160/1170 Oct SPX credit spread right now. We always talk about using delta as an approximation for the probability of the option expiring in the money. Right now the delta for 1170 is .14. I ran the numbers through a probability calculator and got .048, obviously a big difference. I noticed that the IV has spiked recently with the drops we have seen from about 1226 down to 1207 over the last few days. Is IV the only contributor to the difference between the rough delta estimate and the calculated probability?
ryan