Suppose I sell a call, then the next day it is in-the-money,
and suppose the person who bought the option resells it instead of exercising it.
Does this mean that I am not obligated to fulfill the obligation to deliver the underlying ?
And If I was covered ( took a long position ) during the time I sold the call, that means i will now make even more money from the underlying.
eg.
sold spt call Eur futures options strike 1.2250 ( went long 1.2230 at the same time since futures was trading at 1.2230 then )
Now , futures is 1.2355 ( +105 )..
but the person who bought the call that I had sold did not exercise it, but instead resold it for his take profit.
I was covered when I had sold the option...but since the person who bought it never exersised it 9 but resold it ),
So I am now assuming that the long position used to cover the sold call option is not under obligation to be delivered.
Am i right ?
So that means I can make the 105 pips since I was long @ 1.2230 to begin with when I was long .
Am I day dreaming ?
elite traders rock
and suppose the person who bought the option resells it instead of exercising it.
Does this mean that I am not obligated to fulfill the obligation to deliver the underlying ?
And If I was covered ( took a long position ) during the time I sold the call, that means i will now make even more money from the underlying.
eg.
sold spt call Eur futures options strike 1.2250 ( went long 1.2230 at the same time since futures was trading at 1.2230 then )
Now , futures is 1.2355 ( +105 )..
but the person who bought the call that I had sold did not exercise it, but instead resold it for his take profit.
I was covered when I had sold the option...but since the person who bought it never exersised it 9 but resold it ),
So I am now assuming that the long position used to cover the sold call option is not under obligation to be delivered.
Am i right ?
So that means I can make the 105 pips since I was long @ 1.2230 to begin with when I was long .
Am I day dreaming ?
elite traders rock

