Simple question about options

Post #1: "I'm having some slight difficulty understanding the N(-d1) term in the BSM. Can someone elucidate?"

[Replies go into painstaking detail, show sources and derivations with footnotes, etc.)

Post #2: "BTW, I'm not sure about this 'standard deviation' thing you people believe in. I've also heard that 1+1 doesn't actually equal 2 but depends on the diet and toe nail length of the person calculating it."

I've stopped ascribing malicious intent to those long ago. Nowadays, I just nod and move onto other things as soon as I recognize the dynamic.

interesting take...
 
The formula is a little bit complicated as it has many input parameters and uses (log)normal distribution (if that tells you anything).

You have to convert the days to years, ie. 7 / 365 = 0.019178 years
There are other option calculators on the web which work with days instead of years.

For risk-free rate you can simply use 0, or do you know a bank which gives you more if you deposit your money there for a year? If yes, then just enter that % rate.

Here you can see actual volatilities for each strike:
https://www.optionseducation.org/toolsoptionquotes/options-quotes
First choose the company, for example AMD, then choose the option expiration date, then study the Implied Volatility for each strike therein...

These are really absolut beginner's questions, man! :) As said you need to buy a book at amazon or wherever that explains the options basics to absolute beginners... :)

Also your other questions about delta etc. are based on the Black-Scholes-Merton equation results. Just see the "option greeks" at wikipedia.
ATM Delta is not always 0.50, it depends on the params of the option.

thanks for the reply.
 
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