Thanks for the reply, but I'm still not sure what's going on here. I guess they want it that way.
You say 102% on a short. I don't quite get it.
Lets say you have an account with 50,000 cash. You short 50,000 worth of stock, so theres no margin being used.
How does this 102% get calculated in that case.
Is there some reason this is not explained transparently somewhere?
You say 102% on a short. I don't quite get it.
Lets say you have an account with 50,000 cash. You short 50,000 worth of stock, so theres no margin being used.
How does this 102% get calculated in that case.
Is there some reason this is not explained transparently somewhere?