I understand your point, thank you for the explanation. Does that mean in the scenario provided, that the loss will not be added to the basis of the second 1000 shares bought on the same day at $4.50? So it means that the wash sale does not apply? Is this because both batches were bought on the same day or because the first batch of shares were not sold at the time I bough the second batch?
I know too many questions here but please understand that I really want to figure out how this wash sale rule works.