I know that when the spreads are wide, stocks are jumpy. The question I have is -- are illiquid stocks more "spooked" by runs on the futures in general? i.e., is the MM covering his risk much more quickly just by virtue of the stock being even more illiquid?
I know what I've observed, but I just wouldn't mind hearing confirmation from manual scalpers who look at the book every tick of the day.
I know what I've observed, but I just wouldn't mind hearing confirmation from manual scalpers who look at the book every tick of the day.