Originally posted by vulture
The PREM feature is only telling you at that instant in time what the difference between the cash and the futures contract is, and this should not be confused with FAIR VALUE, which is a number that is similar, although slightly different depending on the source calculating the assumed FAIR VALUE between the futures and cash index at any point in the lifespan of the futures contract. Therefore, the PREM can trade at a "premium" to FV or a "discount" to FV...
Nowadays, with such a low interest rate factor calculated into the FV equation, the PREM to cash contract is extremely low. In fact, it trades within 1-2 points of parity with the cash contract as opposed to a substantial double digit premium to cash back in 1999-2000 when the interest rate component of the equation was much higher. Therefore, the margins are thinner in the arb, I would assume since there is less to "capture" in this imbalance. Think for a minute about an arb executed as contracts rolled over in 1998-2000 when you had a 15-25pt premium in the futures to the cash that would eventually erode to 0 over three months. Now that same spread is somewhere in the vicinity of 2-3 points for the same duration...
I don't know a heck of alot about the index arbitrage or how it is executed nowadays, but I have noticed that decline in the PREM over the past 3 years and am just drawing my own conclusions and assumptions. Someone might have some better information about the implications of this decline...