Quote from achilles28:
You don't understand. Fractional reserve systems allow banks to leverage assets (loans) by the multiplier. At the height of the crisis, most banks were leveraged a minimum of 30 to 1 against their balance sheet. When asset values depreciate 3.33%, by mark-to-market accounting standards, lenders are technically insolvent.
Under a full reserve system, the multiplier is 1. Banks cannot create "new" money. Depositors and borrowers cannot enjoy simultaneous access to the same asset. A depositor forfeits access to money in exchange for interest at the end of the term. Asset bubbles are then self policing as the exponentiating credit necessary to fuel speculative euphoria's doesn't exist - either on the finance or real economy side = money supply is relatively fixed. So to correct your question, yes, a full reserve system would have undoubtedly prevented the housing crisis and the Nasdaq bubble (and the Great Depression).
You totally miss the point of how "fractional reserve" system works.... Maybe you didn't read the final part of my last post. (I accept it was a bit long.)
Anyway, "fractional reserve" refers only to "current", "on demand" or "transaction" deposits, which means the owner of the deposit can make a withdrawal via a cach machine, money transfer or debit card payment at any time without incurring a penalty (for using his or her money).
This means banks can lend 100% of money they received via time deposits (where the client may loose interest if the money is withdrawn before the term of the deposit is finished), loans from other banks (sometimes as short as 1 day), issuing bonds etc.
If you look at a typical "investment bank" that doesn't accept deposits like Morgan Stanley or Goldman Sachs or Lehman Brothers (before they collapsed), you will still see that only 10% to 20% of the assets is financed by "shareholders' equity" and the rest is financed via various kinds of loans, bonds etc.
So, even banks that effectively follow "100% reserve" system are highly leveraged. These banks rely on the availability of loans any time the banks need a loan.
Again, in the old-fashioned way, a bank would borrow from Mr. A for a year and would lend to Mr. B, who owns a shop for 10 months. This would mean that as long as Mr. B pays on time the bank receives the money before the bank has to pay out to Mr. A.
With the current financial system a bank may give a 20-year mortgage and finance it via overnight loans from other banks. The bank can not deman the mortgage back for 20 years till it expires (except for special circumstances that are not so special these days) but even if the bank could claim the mortgage back via repossession it would take month for the funds to flow in. On the other hand, overnight borrowing assumes that money borrowed should be returned the next day by means of borrowing from the next bunch of overnight lenders. As soon as overnight lenders have minor doubt in the bank's sustainability, they refuse to give overnight loan... and the bank collapses.
OK, here is something that DID keep a failed bank from destroying the financial system (you know, the "too big to fail" argument). It is
GlassâSteagall Act, which was saving the US economy from the bank insolvency since 1933 till 1999; in 1999 provisions that prohibit a commercial bank from owning an investment bank (and vice versa) were repealed by
GrammâLeachâBliley Act.
The basic idea of GlassâSteagall Act is "investment" banks are involved in inherently risky activities such as leveraged buyouts, securities and derivatives trading, underwriting, borrowing in the money market etc. These activities may appear as having only moderate risks on average but the extreme-event risks are so high that they can bankrupt the whole bank. On the other hand, "commercial" banks take deposits and give loans to businesses and individuals. This is a very much conservative self-sustained banking model.