Quote from pspr:
38/38/24
Obama wins independent voters by four with leaners (50/46), and by seven without (46/39). How could Romney take a lead under those circumstances? The sample is a straight-up split of 38/38/24 after Republicansâ R+1 in the 2010 midterms, but Romneyâs capturing slightly more Democrats (12%) than Obama captures Republicans (9%). Whatâs interesting about this result is that Romney has led among Ohio independents in most other polls, yet has either trailed or tied Obama.
http://hotair.com/archives/2012/10/29/ramussen-romney-up-2-in-ohio-5048/
Thanks. I'm not sure I agree with an even distribution, but +8 D is absurd.
