Hello mockney.
I am aware of this point. I have discussed this partly in a previous post in this thread and I take
the chance of your question to also partially rectify something.
If you are:
Acct Long 10
Acct Short -5
this is equivalent to:
Acct Long 5
Acct Short 0
This holds true, at any given instant, for 1 trade.
From this one would imply that any algorithm - which is running **independently ** on 2 accounts - can be "projected" into 1 account.
For a sequence of trades, if there is *dependency*, the equivalence holds no more.
The fact is that here the 2 scalpers are *not* running independently, but they have strong dependence. They are, say, "tied".
This may make the algorithm not "projectable" on 1 account.
[At least I could not do it, yet]
** If I could project this algo on 1 account, I would have solved all the margin problems and by now <b>I would probably be richer than a sheick </b> , ahaha

)) **
In other words, chances there are that, using 1 account only, one will never be able to match this level of performance.
imho, it is also possible that this might hold in general, i.e. 2 accounts strategies "dominate" 1 account strategies. Which means
that for any strategy S1 run on 1 account, you can find a dominating 2-acct strategy S2. Perhaps a pair of S1 itself + dependence constraints.
(just a little conjecture
I did not embark (yet) in this kind of formal research. Most concern is now in creating the money machine. While a good cash flow is coming in, we can
relax and write some (seemingly) useless academic paper

)
Tom
Quote from mockney:
I'm not clear why you need to maintain an open long and short position concurrently when this is the same delta as being flat.
when you take one side off or add one, its just the same as opening a position from flat, is it not? so why not do that and reduce transaction costs for un-necessary trades?