I am not talking about pin risk. What I am thinking is the following:
Stock at time t0 has bid 100 and ask 101; the market maker tries to simultaneously buy at 100 and sell at 101;
of course, simultaneity is not guaranteed. if the MM bought at 100 and at time (t0+dt) the price has dropped to 90, then the MM can suffer a loss.
So, how do the MMs get around this?
Stock at time t0 has bid 100 and ask 101; the market maker tries to simultaneously buy at 100 and sell at 101;
of course, simultaneity is not guaranteed. if the MM bought at 100 and at time (t0+dt) the price has dropped to 90, then the MM can suffer a loss.
So, how do the MMs get around this?
