I've noticed that a lot of OTM call options have bid prices that are below intrinsic value. If I sold at the bid, is the risk of early assignment 100% in these cases?
Wouldn't the market maker just immediately exercise it for a risk free profit?
You should say sell at the bid to open the trade. If you are long (own) you might for some reason want to close your position by selling an illiquid option i.e. deep in the money option. at the bid. One reason might be that you can't or don't want to exercise the option.I've noticed that a lot of OTM call options have bid prices that are below intrinsic value. If I sold at the bid, is the risk of early assignment 100% in these cases?
Wouldn't the market maker just immediately exercise it for a risk free profit?
What do you mean by 'below intrinsic value'?I've noticed that a lot of OTM call options have bid prices that are below intrinsic value. If I sold at the bid, is the risk of early assignment 100% in these cases?
Wouldn't the market maker just immediately exercise it for a risk free profit?
We have a winner![]()
I've noticed that a lot of OTM call options have bid prices that are below intrinsic value. If I sold at the bid, is the risk of early assignment 100% in these cases?
Wouldn't the market maker just immediately exercise it for a risk free profit?
I've noticed that a lot of OTM call options have bid prices that are below intrinsic value. If I sold at the bid, is the risk of early assignment 100% in these cases?
Wouldn't the market maker just immediately exercise it for a risk free profit?