No, it doesn't. It absolutely doesn't. From the article:
The NAACP defines lynchings as “the public killing of an individual who has not received” due process under the law.
By this definition you can attribute murders in NYC to lynching. Or does the victim have to be black each time?
Is it any time a black person is killed (and black only) there is a suspected lynching? If that was the case, don't we
already have laws against murder on the books? What good does this do?
If it is not a lynching, then the definition being so liberally applied here is worthless.
This is one of those "obvious cases" you mention:
Raynard Johnson was found hanging from a pecan tree in his front yard in Kokomo, Miss. The Mississippi Bureau of Investigation called the hanging a suicide, according to records. But his family believes Johnson was lynched, Jefferson said.
Oh yeah, real obvious. No proof, and the MBI says it was a suicide, but its somehow obvious that they were lying. And you have proof, right? Err...no, sorry. We just
know it. But the people calling the 2020 election a fraud are crazy, by the way, for the exact same belief. Or Florida hid COVID data. Or...
You're a sham.