Reverse trend correlation?

qlai said:
Is my question so idiotic that people are confused by it!? :). Not random. There is a relationship ... X moving up or down causes Y to flatten out (pinned). But if X starts flattening out, Y starts moving (towards or away from) and vice versa. It doesn't matter which is driving which. This is my proprietary charting platform in case you wandering.

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You can write a stochastic equation of Y in terms of X if you know the math.
 
qlai said:
Is my question so idiotic that people are confused by it!? :). Not random. There is a relationship ... X moving up or down causes Y to flatten out (pinned). But if X starts flattening out, Y starts moving (towards or away from) and vice versa. It doesn't matter which is driving which. This is my proprietary charting platform in case you wandering.

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IMO, there is no mathematical way to show correlation or causation from your description.
 
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The ordinal *event* of 'trendiness' is correlated with 'DE-trendiness' -- even if the cardinal trendiness is not. It's not as pretty, but it's still an inverse correlation.

I haven't had enough coffee, but I'm thinking (like you, qlai) that there must be a better term for it. I am abashed that I can't bring that better term to mind right now. Sheeesh.
 
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