Reverse Call or Put Calendar Spreads--Who uses this strategy?

There is one thing that puzzles me. I set up the spread---buying 1 APR ATM call and selling 1 JUN ATM call. The spread does appear as positive numbers. For instance, the recent bid/ask was 15/17. To place this spread, one has to sell it. So, I sell it for 16. Now, suppose the VIX drops 10% and the ES moves up 50 points (about 5%). What will the bid/ask look like? Having done credit spreads and only realizing the credit received as the max profit, I cannot envision what the reverse call calendar spread's bid/ask will look like. If my understanding is correct, this spread should turn negative when I go to close it (buy it back). If this is true, my broker (IB) has told me that GLOBEX doesn't accept negative bids. So, how would I exit this spread? Second, I am having a hard time envisioning the near-money call far outperforming and covering the loss from the far-money call.
 
Quote from jwcapital:

There is one thing that puzzles me. I set up the spread---buying 1 APR ATM call and selling 1 JUN ATM call. The spread does appear as positive numbers. For instance, the recent bid/ask was 15/17. To place this spread, one has to sell it. So, I sell it for 16. Now, suppose the VIX drops 10% and the ES moves up 50 points (about 5%). What will the bid/ask look like? Having done credit spreads and only realizing the credit received as the max profit, I cannot envision what the reverse call calendar spread's bid/ask will look like. If my understanding is correct, this spread should turn negative when I go to close it (buy it back). If this is true, my broker (IB) has told me that GLOBEX doesn't accept negative bids. So, how would I exit this spread?

As the UL rises, the price of each option rises. But as IV drops, the Jun call loses more time premium and the spread narrows. For example, the quotes might be 51 (Mar) and 60 (Jun) for a combo price of 9 by 10. Buying to close for 10 would net you a 6 pt profit

Second, I am having a hard time envisioning the near-money call far outperforming and covering the loss from the far-money call.

If the UL goes nowhere, the near term will lose more than the long term due to greater rate of decay (you lose). If IV increases, the far term will go up more. You lose.

However, if the UL goes up or down big, the far term call loses more (think parity for the extreme result). If IV decreases, the far term loses more (higher vega).
 
I appreciate the explanation spindr. I input the parameters into the P&L graph within the risk analyser, and it appears that my profit could be greater than the 16 point credit I received. Is this possible? Or am I truly limited by the credit recieved minus the greater-than-zero buyback?

Given the above example, where the initial credit is 16 and the spread narrowed to 10, giving a 6 pt gain. Is it possible for the value of the near-term to be greater than the value of the far-term? Just having a hard time understanding the P&L graph? Also, the P&L graph shows virtually no loss--with this trade, I am not sure how to calculate the loss. Again, thanks for your help spindr.
 
Quote from jwcapital:

I input the parameters into the P&L graph within the risk analyser, and it appears that my profit could be greater than the 16 point credit I received. Is this possible? Or am I truly limited by the credit recieved minus the greater-than-zero buyback? Given the above example, where the initial credit is 16 and the spread narrowed to 10, giving a 6 pt gain. Is it possible for the value of the near-term to be greater than the value of the far-term? Just having a hard time understanding the P&L graph?

The maximum profit should be limited to the credit received. If the risk analyzer indicates a larger profit, it could have to do with the pricing or futures which I am minimally familiar with (backwardization?), inaccurate model formula or user error (g).

Think of the extreme. Suppose the UL made a humongous move and drove both options to parity (theoretical rather than practical event). They would both be worth either zero or their intrinsic value. Initial credit received = 16 pts. Cost to close? Effectively zero.



Also, the P&L graph shows virtually no loss--with this trade, I am not sure how to calculate the loss.

There's something wrong with this picture (the input or the analyzer). Suppose at near term expiration the UL is at the strike and IV is the same. The near term long call expires worthless and the far term is worth less. The time decay on the far month call will be less than that of the near month so there has to be a loss.
 
I did forget to mention one other thing that is important--this spread is to be exited 30 days prior to the expiration of the near-term option. Therefore, the loss will be much smaller than anticipated. I do understand, if the spread is held to expiration, that the loss will be much higher. I do agree that the P&L graph must top out at the credit, more or less. I do see that the huge move upward of the underlying/huge volatility crush will cause the spread to narrow. In addition, huge move downward will cause the spread to narrow, for the far-term call will lose value much quicker than the near-term. Since I am exiting 30 days prior to expiration, time value really doesn't present a problem. Thanks again spindr.

Do you believe this spread is a better play coming off a volatility spike than a bull put spread, iron condor, iron butterfly, short strangle/straddle (other short volatility plays)?
 
Quote from jwcapital:

Since I am exiting 30 days prior to expiration, time value really doesn't present a problem.

You can still lose a decent piece of change in one month if the UL goes nowhere.

What's interesting is if the UL moves up or down quickly to the BE pts (price not IV change). You can book profit by rolling the profitable leg up/down toward new UL price. Whether you do this would depend on your directional outlook since it enhances one side and takes a bit away from the other.



Do you believe this spread is a better play coming off a volatility spike than a bull put spread, iron condor, iron butterfly, short strangle/straddle (other short volatility plays)?

That's difficult to answer because the directional and IV liability can be different for each strategy (eg. short straddle bad if price moves out but reverse calendar good if price moves, etc. Opposite for iron condor as well).


 
Reverse call calendar spread – I guess what you are saying: instead of selling the front month you will be buying the front month? And instead of buying the back month you will be selling the back month. So what do we have? A credit call calendar spread…

If volatility increases you have a problem and if volatility decreases you are looking good. As the stock or ETF moves down in price although you might think you might be making money at that point, it might not be true because as the stock moves down the volatility increases and due to the increase in volatility on your naked call you could still lose money short term. If the stock goes up in price, but not far enough to breakeven or make money, you can be losing money again.

So the way to make money in this strategy is by having large moves up or down in the stock or ETF. I don’t really think this is a good strategy, if this was the way you were going to do it (If you do it for even money you might be looking a little bit better)
 
Quote from Financial Saint:

If volatility increases you have a problem and if volatility decreases you are looking good. As the stock or ETF moves down in price although you might think you might be making money at that point, it might not be true because as the stock moves down the volatility increases and due to the increase in volatility on your naked call you could still lose money short term. If the stock goes up in price, but not far enough to breakeven or make money, you can be losing money again.

Every strategy has the potential to lose. Or win. That's what makes a risk graph :)


So the way to make money in this strategy is by having large moves up or down in the stock or ETF. I don’t really think this is a good strategy, if this was the way you were going to do it

This strategy makes money from a large move in price AND/OR a contraction in implied volatility. Like everything, you have to utilize it in the right circumstances. EA's ?

(If you do it for even money you might be looking a little bit better)

Do what for even money? It's an initial credit position.
 
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