Originally posted by Kymar
Though I understand the theory, what I don't get is how the profits are actually banked on such trades. May have to do with my never having made an options transaction... So I've set up my bullet or conversion, and have sold some stock, then bought it again at a lower price. Meanwhile, my ITM put has appreciated in value, but wouldn't I have to sell it to collect any profit? If so, when? If not, what am I missing - does it have something to do with how options vs. stock are valued within a single account? And why isn't the total transaction affected significantly by slippage and commissions on all the pieces?
Ok I'll chime in
Bullets are fully electronic and done by bullet firms. They usually sell stock out of their own inventory. That deep in the money put option we are talking about is very special. It has a 1 day time premium and expires at the end of the day. There is no slippage as the bullet firms take care of everything.
On conversions there is the floor but we are requesting a conversion with them (a spread) and all the floor traders know exactly what we want and are usually happy to comply. We used to get them for a credit when the options had more liquidity but now it costs us .10 or so on the floor.
When I own a bullet ..or a conversion I hit the sell button instead of the short button. It show -100 or -1000 in my account on my position summary just like as if I hit the short button. When I cover it appears the exact same way.
Look they work....
Trying to understand everything about bullets is just like trying to understand how your TV works.
I turn it on and change channels.
I don't really care about the electronics insides too much. This won't effect your P&L understanding everything about bullets.
If you are with a pro firm you access to them.
If you are retail fat chance. This is one of the reasons I have to pay yearly exchange membership fees and retail traders don't.
Robert