Has anyone done any research on how much the SPY has to move in order for the ES to move? Or is the causality the reverse of that and the ES has to move in order for the SPY to move? But, if that were the case, how would the SPY ever move anything other than a multiple of 2.5 cents, since that's the approximate SPY value of a single movement of the ES tick?
I'm pretty sure that this is such an obvious arbitrage opportunity that there is no arbitrage opportunity and I'm asking only because I have a strategy for the SPY in which the difference between taking a trade and not taking a trade can be .01 and I'm curious if I would be penalized in using the ES to trade that same strategy.
For example, let's say that the SPY is currently trading at 130 and the ES is trading at 1300 (yes, I know the ES is not exactly 10X the SPY, but it doesn't really matter for this example), then the SPY moves from 130 to 130.1, it seems that the way this would play out is:
SPY 130.01, ES 1300 (50% of the time), ES 1300.25 (50% of the time)
SPY 130.02, ES 1300 (50% of the time), ES 1300.25 (50% of the time)
SPY 130.03, ES 1300.25 (50% of the time), ES 1300.5 (50% of the time)
SPY 130.04, ES 1300.25 (50% of the time), ES 1300.5 (50% of the time)
SPY 130.05, ES 1300.5 (100% of the time)
SPY 130.06, ES 1300.5 (50% of the time), ES 1300.75 (50% of the time)
SPY 130.07, ES 1300.5 (50% of the time), ES 1300.75 (50% of the time)
SPY 130.08, ES 1300.75 (50% of the time), ES 1301 (50% of the time)
SPY 130.09, ES 1300.75 (50% of the time), ES 1301 (50% of the time)
So, if you do the math, I think it comes out to be a wash and that a strategy with a granularity of .01 on the SPY won't be disadvantaged when going over to the larger ES tick size. So, if I got a trade trigger at SPY 130.06, I wouldn't automatically be "overpaying" for the ES at 1300.75, if this analysis is accurate.
Of course, the assumption that, e.g. the SPY going from 130.05 to 130.06 will only trigger a move in the ES bid from 1300.5 to 1300.75 half the time, i.e. randomly, could be completely wrong historically, but I just don't have the data to know if it is or isn't.
I'm pretty sure that this is such an obvious arbitrage opportunity that there is no arbitrage opportunity and I'm asking only because I have a strategy for the SPY in which the difference between taking a trade and not taking a trade can be .01 and I'm curious if I would be penalized in using the ES to trade that same strategy.
For example, let's say that the SPY is currently trading at 130 and the ES is trading at 1300 (yes, I know the ES is not exactly 10X the SPY, but it doesn't really matter for this example), then the SPY moves from 130 to 130.1, it seems that the way this would play out is:
SPY 130.01, ES 1300 (50% of the time), ES 1300.25 (50% of the time)
SPY 130.02, ES 1300 (50% of the time), ES 1300.25 (50% of the time)
SPY 130.03, ES 1300.25 (50% of the time), ES 1300.5 (50% of the time)
SPY 130.04, ES 1300.25 (50% of the time), ES 1300.5 (50% of the time)
SPY 130.05, ES 1300.5 (100% of the time)
SPY 130.06, ES 1300.5 (50% of the time), ES 1300.75 (50% of the time)
SPY 130.07, ES 1300.5 (50% of the time), ES 1300.75 (50% of the time)
SPY 130.08, ES 1300.75 (50% of the time), ES 1301 (50% of the time)
SPY 130.09, ES 1300.75 (50% of the time), ES 1301 (50% of the time)
So, if you do the math, I think it comes out to be a wash and that a strategy with a granularity of .01 on the SPY won't be disadvantaged when going over to the larger ES tick size. So, if I got a trade trigger at SPY 130.06, I wouldn't automatically be "overpaying" for the ES at 1300.75, if this analysis is accurate.
Of course, the assumption that, e.g. the SPY going from 130.05 to 130.06 will only trigger a move in the ES bid from 1300.5 to 1300.75 half the time, i.e. randomly, could be completely wrong historically, but I just don't have the data to know if it is or isn't.