Quote from 2cents:
can u elaborate plse, re why it becomes unsecured? (i am in the midst of prime brokerage services type negotiations, altho' for fx spot trading essentially at this point, and perhaps fx cfds etc, also secured agreement on designated segregated client acct with my 'prime', therefore v.interested indeed in hearing more abt what may happen shld they go tits up...)
thanks in advance
Well, where do I begin, the whole concept of margin and financing is very simple in the retail range, but can be very complex in the institutional client side. Basically, for retail equity clients, it is Reg-T, straight up, no ifs ands and buts, for retail future clients, it is SPAN, also clear cut. I don't know about FX, never dealt on the retail FX side of the house. By the way, the description here (Reg-T, etc) are highly US centric. I will give some idea of the UK / Asia treatments later on, but only some.
For institutional clients, the combination is utterly confusing. If the institution is a broker dealer or a market participant (aka, member of exchanges, certainly market makers), the institution can use standard Risk-Based-Haircuts, the RBH-SPAN calculation is straight forward and applies mostly to market makers, but can apply in some cases for just exchange members. However, since by regulation, the clearing firm can not lend the institutional client reg-T requirements, but can lend the client SPAN money. So what a lot of clearing firms that is both a broker / dealer and a FCM does is to keep most of the client's money on the securities side, and use the securities side to satisfy the SPAN requirements. This is probably the simplest description of regulated cross-margin treatment. There are some variations I won't go into.
For non-exchange member institutional clients (a large majority of them are hedge funds), the water gets muddy. In Beeland's case, it gets even more confusing as Jim Rogers personally is still a member of CBOT and CME, but the Beeland entity is not (I am guessing here, but the article clearly says unsecured, so the conjecture is probably correct).
Let me go on a tangent for a second here, hedge funds don't want to be exchange members for the simple reason that they don't want to have file SEC reports regarding flow, and execution center destination. Anyways, for hedge funds, the RBH is not applicable, so a lot of prime brokers invented something called Risk-base margin calculation, basically lending the hedge fund money overnight to cover the margins (SPAN and Reg-T). I know I just said that "clearing firm" can not lend their customers Reg-T money (confusing, isn't it?) but an "offshore financing arm" *can*. Typically the "offshore financing arm" would do an overnight reverse Repo to cover the margin requirements. Now, since the money is coming from an offshore financing arm, the money as well as the collateral for the Repo need to be kept on non-secured accounts (sometimes off-shore, sometimes not), as the money is not the customer's money, but instead through an off-balance sheet transaction (i.e., reverse Repo). This, incidentally is also how hedge funds get leverage.
This is also the reason why financial services firm have so many legal entities, for instance in Refco's case, Refco LLC (the regulated FCM), Refco Securities (the regulated broker / dealer), Refco Capital markets (the unregulated financing and prime brokerage arm).
There are hedge funds are don't use leverage above the regulated amounts, so they are purely regulated. But the prime brokers privately don't consider them to be "prime brokerage clients", as they would generate no financing revenue. Prime Brokerage generate substantially more financing revenue than from providing brokerage and DMA type of services (the rule of thumb is usually 65/35 split, or more).
Now, back to other liquid contracts like CFDs, they are treated in UK under a simple leverage scheme similar to SPAN, I am not sure about regulation regarding CFD and the undelying cross-margin treatment. You also mentioned "client" accounts, this is more like a wrap-account type of setup, is that correct? If so, while wrap-accounts are sometime bundled into prime brokerage services, they are different, keep in mind that prime brokers generate most of their revenues from financing, a wrap requiring no financing is just a plain vanilla institutional (or even retail) account, maybe secured, that's all.
The key in hedge funds is leverage. Which is why sometimes people confuse a CTA, an investment vehicle that uses the standard futures leverage, with unsecured leveraged funds, from a clearing firm perspective, CTAs are substantially simpler to service, don't require extensive financing through the unregulated arm.