Questioning the meaning of Delta

thecoder said:
This is the behavior in the BSM model. But I've shown that this behavior is mathematically incorrect as it unfairly favors the Call over the Put.
As said, IMO the payout has to be equal for both sides for same relative distances.
This means a totally (or maybe just partially) new option pricing model would be needed.
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Why is it unfair, though? Of course BSM isn't flawless, its just a model. I like that you keep saying "IMO" because yes that is your opinion.

The call has dividend risk. Also the call synthetically copies the underlying movement in the same direction. Where as the put is the inverse.

We all know over time markets drift upwards, this is the natural inclination of permitting through time. As we advance as a collective society, our capital markets reflect it. Until we hit the roof and this new technology age becomes totally saturated and innovation declines, I don't see prices going anywhere but drifting up geometrically in a brownian motion fashion (Bach/Einstein). Thus the CALL will reflect that lognormality of this consistent drift upwards.

Idk, it makes sense to me. Regardless we need to take these greeks in stride, as they are just PDE's on PDE's. You can tweak the settings to fit your brainwaves, thats cool. But if the markets are using a particular model to gauge RV, I suggest you keep an eye on those same models. Nobody gives a hoot what you think the inherent definition of delta is. But it does make for a good forum discussion :)
 
member the metrics of the market makers.

For every action, a reaction occurs. This is the essence of trading.

Calls have inherent long exposure, puts short exposure.

Theo, calls have a payoff of infinity, while the puts max payoff is the strike (stocks can't go below zero, or can they?).

Pay attention to liquidity. Which strikes are being traded? (low strike puts > high strike calls)

Calls were created first, and traded on the market for i think 7 years before puts were created. So idk if its "unfair" codebro
 
VolSkewTrader said:
The payouts are asymmetric because you are using a lognormal pricing distribution. They should NOT be relatively equal. The calls have a much wider range of potential values than the puts. The number of possible call prices x probability gives you the approximate expected value for the call....which is why the value is so much higher than the put in a 1 SD move. The # of potential call prices is entirely determined by the volatility level. The higher the vol, the more # of call prices are possible... while the potential # of put prices remains relatively fixed. That's pretty basic statistics...which you are trying to disprove.
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This post should've ended this thread on the dot!
 
VolSkewTrader said:
Where's Philo Judaeus when we need him?
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.sigma said:
I AM HE! lol
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boy howdy,
The World's Power Centers Await!

Philo considers Caligula's plan to be a provocation, asking, "Are you making war upon us, because you anticipate that we will not endure such indignity, but that we will fight on behalf of our laws, and die in defence of our national customs? For you cannot possibly have been ignorant of what was likely to result from your attempt to introduce these innovations respecting our temple." In his entire presentation, he implicitly supports the commitment to rebel against the emperor rather than allow such sacrilege to take place.[12]
 
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