Hello everybody, first time poster here.
I have a conceptual question for option traders specialized in Volatility Skew.
If we take a look at any index product (or their ETFs) a noticeable skew is observed on the downside. For example, looking at OTM puts as of today (for the May 19th expiration, 46 days away) for SPY
SPY=235.33
Strike Price ----- Implied Volatility (based on OTM Puts)
210 ----- 19.09%
215 ----- 17.16%
220 ----- 15.21%
225 ----- 13.27%
230 ----- 11.31%
235 ----- 9.29% <---- This is the ATM
My question here is, assuming there is a violent move to the downside where SPY goes to 220. Intuitively there would be an increase in Implied Volatility across the board for all strikes (let's forget about Horizontal/Time Skew for this example). One would think that IV would rise for the 220 Strike put. However, since it already started with an elevated IV (because of skew), any increase due to price movement to the downside would be countered by the fact that 220 is the new ATM and therefore the (theoretical) lowest IV for that series.
I guess my question here is conceptually, is the skew a sort of "look into the future" of what the IV would be if the underlying were to reach that point?
Does the underlying crashing change the shape of the vertical skew? And if designing strategies counting on IV increase for OTM puts, wouldn't that be negated by the already elevated level at which they start and the subsequent shift in the price structure (being the new ATM)?
I have a conceptual question for option traders specialized in Volatility Skew.
If we take a look at any index product (or their ETFs) a noticeable skew is observed on the downside. For example, looking at OTM puts as of today (for the May 19th expiration, 46 days away) for SPY
SPY=235.33
Strike Price ----- Implied Volatility (based on OTM Puts)
210 ----- 19.09%
215 ----- 17.16%
220 ----- 15.21%
225 ----- 13.27%
230 ----- 11.31%
235 ----- 9.29% <---- This is the ATM
My question here is, assuming there is a violent move to the downside where SPY goes to 220. Intuitively there would be an increase in Implied Volatility across the board for all strikes (let's forget about Horizontal/Time Skew for this example). One would think that IV would rise for the 220 Strike put. However, since it already started with an elevated IV (because of skew), any increase due to price movement to the downside would be countered by the fact that 220 is the new ATM and therefore the (theoretical) lowest IV for that series.
I guess my question here is conceptually, is the skew a sort of "look into the future" of what the IV would be if the underlying were to reach that point?
Does the underlying crashing change the shape of the vertical skew? And if designing strategies counting on IV increase for OTM puts, wouldn't that be negated by the already elevated level at which they start and the subsequent shift in the price structure (being the new ATM)?
