Technically, with an ATM delta of .5 you would have expected a bit more than a 1.5 gain on that 3 pt move because as the option goes more and more ITM, the delta increases. The reason that you didn't realize a profit was because IV contracted after the Fed meeting and that negated your gain.
"IF" that was the case would I have been better off being short a call having that same outlook but taking advantage of inflated prices? But even then I would be buying an over priced OTM call as a hedge to keep my loss at a $500 max. How do I avoid this?
In your scenario where the underlying only dropped 3 pts, the bearish call spread would have outperformed the long Jan 91 put with an IV drop. But if SPY had dropped 10 pts, the put would have been better. With each strategy, better off depends on what transpires after execution.
If you sell a spread in a higher IV environment, you overpay for the long leg. But since it is OTM and much lower priced, you overpay less than you are overpaid for the short leg that you sell. Don't get caught up in the little details (g).
On friday 11/28 I bought 5 Dec 75 PUTs on the SPY and wow I wasnt expecting such a move but on monday 12/1 the market tanked sending the spy down 8 pts. With a sizeable move like that would I have been better off buying one or two atm puts? And what if deep ITM? I find myself watching the market and evaluating the charts and taking trades that I expect to close out in a few days regardless of the outcome. I am just having trouble choosing the best option.
Only hindsight will tell you which option would have been the best purchase since it's the amount of the underlying's move that determines that. However, you can interpolate the "what ifs" from an option chain (ignoring time decay and subsequent IV change).
The difference b/t your option price and the next ITM option will be the amount of gain for an underlying move of that strike difference. This is a lot harder to explain in words than to visualize so maybe some numbers...
Suppose XYZ is 100
Jan 95p 3.30
Jan 100p 5.50
Jan 105p 8.50
Jan 110p 12.00
If you bot the Jan 95p for 3.30 and the underlying were to drop 5 pts immediately, you'd have a 2.20 gain (67%)
If you bot the Jan 100p for 5.50 and the underlying were to drop 5 pts immediately, you'd have a 3.00 gain (55%)
If you bot the Jan 105p for 8.50 and the underlying were to drop 5 pts immediately, you'd have a 3.50 gain (41%)
On a single option basis, the Jan 110p makes the highest dollar gain. On a percentage basis, the Jan 95p makes the most gain. So the most bang for the buck on an equi-dollar basis is the OTM option. That's called leverage.
Clear as mud?
