Hi everybody, I've got a question about margin maintenance as related to options. So I've been trading options for a few years now and I love it. But over all that time, there's just one thing I still don't understand!
I mostly sell puts, and everytime I make a trade, it uses up some margin maintenance (I believe on ThinkOrSwim it's called "Buying Power Effect". On Questrade it's called "Maintenance Excess"). However, some stocks (of comparable stock price & contracts) use up WAY MORE margin than others! Does anybody know how this is calculated (or why this is)?
For example, some stocks like VIPS or VRTX use a relatively small amount of margin when I sell puts on them. However, other stocks (like blue chips or low-beta stocks) use a LOT more margin -- even when the stocks have comparable stock prices. And yes I'm trying to compare similar strikes & similar contracts.
Obviously, it's in my best interest to find stocks that use up LESS buying power/margin maintenance, because then I can sell more puts. It seems to have something to do with implied volatility (i.e. the more volatile the stock, the less impact on my maintenance excess), but I'm not sure how it works.
Any guidance here would be greatly appreciated, thanks!
I mostly sell puts, and everytime I make a trade, it uses up some margin maintenance (I believe on ThinkOrSwim it's called "Buying Power Effect". On Questrade it's called "Maintenance Excess"). However, some stocks (of comparable stock price & contracts) use up WAY MORE margin than others! Does anybody know how this is calculated (or why this is)?
For example, some stocks like VIPS or VRTX use a relatively small amount of margin when I sell puts on them. However, other stocks (like blue chips or low-beta stocks) use a LOT more margin -- even when the stocks have comparable stock prices. And yes I'm trying to compare similar strikes & similar contracts.
Obviously, it's in my best interest to find stocks that use up LESS buying power/margin maintenance, because then I can sell more puts. It seems to have something to do with implied volatility (i.e. the more volatile the stock, the less impact on my maintenance excess), but I'm not sure how it works.
Any guidance here would be greatly appreciated, thanks!