Xflat,
Youâre right, I do have that one backwards. This is what happens when itâs way past oneâs bedtime (is that OK as an excuse?). Thanks for the correction.
âConversely, if implied drops, your time value will decrease at a greater rate than normal time decayâ. Definitely lack of clarity here. Need to determine what Iâm trying to say.
My point of reference was European-style index options. Occasionally, calls will trade below intrinsic value. However, being so deep in-the-money I canât see any advantage â or point - in using these, nor do I see an arbitrage.
For example:
5000 strike
call premium: 2,895
underlying: 7945
days: 175
rate: 4%
intrinsic value (discount): 5000+2895-7945=-50
These values were from DAX options, 21 Sep 07 (Last Trade), 20 lots. There were other examples.
Arbitrage:
long 5000 call at 2,895
short future at 7945.
Regardless of outcome, at expiry the net gain will be 50 points. If the opportunity cost of carry (for the call) at â56 is included:
2895 â (2895 x e^(0.08 x 175/365)) = -56.
50 â 56 = -6, or no arbitrage. Presumably, the futureâs margin cost should also be accounted for.
Is that correct? Should there a greater than 1:1 ratio?
Grant.