Question for the traders who use stop movement as part of your trade management techniques: do you set your position size using the theoretical maximum risk of the trade or do you set it using the realized risk on historical trades?
To make it more clear, in case it isn't, let's say that you want to risk 1% per trade and if you look at your losing trades you've been able to historically reduce your risk by 50% on each losing trades via your stop movement techniques, so that you would actually put 2% at-risk in order to lose, on average, 1% at trade closure, would that be what you did or would you look at risking 1% from the start and lose 0.5% on average? In the first scenario, sometimes you will lose 2%, obviously, but if your strategy is net profitable, it should be more profitable using the 2% to lose 1% trade size than the 1% to lose 0.5% trade size.
To make it more clear, in case it isn't, let's say that you want to risk 1% per trade and if you look at your losing trades you've been able to historically reduce your risk by 50% on each losing trades via your stop movement techniques, so that you would actually put 2% at-risk in order to lose, on average, 1% at trade closure, would that be what you did or would you look at risking 1% from the start and lose 0.5% on average? In the first scenario, sometimes you will lose 2%, obviously, but if your strategy is net profitable, it should be more profitable using the 2% to lose 1% trade size than the 1% to lose 0.5% trade size.
