Quote from piezoe:
There were large deficits 1942 thru 1946, then surpluses in 1947-49 and again in 1960 and in 1969. The other years between 1942 and 1969 produced mild deficits except 1959 where the deficit reached 12 billion. In other words, while the deficits during WW II were large they were easily financed and serviced in a high productivity economy and by a fiscally responsible government that returned to surpluses or only small deficits after the war. Perhaps the right question here is what part of the WWII debt was monetized, if any?
Contrast that post WW II period with the period 1982 - 2012 where very large deficits have become the norm. Beginning with Reagan, deficits reached levels four times greater then the deficits run during the preceding Vietnam war. The only years since 1982 that the government has not run huge deficits was a brief period 1997-2001. The past four years we've seen the first trillion dollar plus deficits.
I don't think there can be any question regarding whether or not deficits can lead indirectly to inflation, if the resulting debt is monetized. They obviously can, but it also seems to be true that they don't necessarily have to if the debt is not monetized. Perhaps the probability that they will has something to do, indirectly, with the Bretton Woods accord being abandoned and going to fiat money. That event seems to have let the fiscal responsibility cat out of the bag and ushered in a period of eye-popping deficits even during boom times! That is certainly not something Keynes would have approved of! Apparently we are selective in our application of Keynesian principles. We like Keynes when things are going badly, but are happy to ignore him in the good years.