Facts:
1) You have $4,200 in cash
2) QQQQ is at $42.00.
3) You are bearish on QQQQ.
Your brother-in-law creates this totally risk-free method to "sell short" QQQQ:
Step 1:
Buy Jan 2008 QQQQ 42 put (YWZMP) at $3.70 (current offer). Cash used: $370.
Step 2:
Take remaining $3,830 ($4,200-$370) and buy a 2-year CD at 4.85%
End of 2 years (approx): CD is now worth $4,210.
If QQQQ increases (boo), your put option is worth $0, but your CD keeps your original $4,200 intact.
If QQQQ decreases (yea!) your put option increases 1/1 for the drop in QQQQ and your CD returns $4,210.
Isn't this the same as shorting QQQQ BUT with ZERO RISK?
Any flaws to my logic?
Thanks,
RetiredInvestor
NYC
1) You have $4,200 in cash
2) QQQQ is at $42.00.
3) You are bearish on QQQQ.
Your brother-in-law creates this totally risk-free method to "sell short" QQQQ:
Step 1:
Buy Jan 2008 QQQQ 42 put (YWZMP) at $3.70 (current offer). Cash used: $370.
Step 2:
Take remaining $3,830 ($4,200-$370) and buy a 2-year CD at 4.85%
End of 2 years (approx): CD is now worth $4,210.
If QQQQ increases (boo), your put option is worth $0, but your CD keeps your original $4,200 intact.
If QQQQ decreases (yea!) your put option increases 1/1 for the drop in QQQQ and your CD returns $4,210.
Isn't this the same as shorting QQQQ BUT with ZERO RISK?
Any flaws to my logic?
Thanks,
RetiredInvestor
NYC
