I use the underlying price to calculate risk/coverage/headroom/margin of safety.
Let me ask my question differently: I sell a put waaaay out of the money. Say 90 per cent away from current stock proce. I would like to be able to compare the return on equity allocated to this options to dividends paid by prefs and junior debt across the capital structure.
i would use the strike price as my denominator.
don’t use margin and worse, don’t use premium received/paid. Both are forms of extreme leverage and obfuscate real return to risk or capital.
for example, you sell an atm put. Is your return 20percent whereas if you owned stock your return would be a lot lower? Would you dare invest the same dollar value in the put as in the stock? Of course not. In the downside the risk And the pnl is essentially the same. Shouldn’t the return be the same as well then?
only worry about the margin to see how much rope you still have left. Ideally it should be a lot of rope.