Quote from dmo:
Of course, if there's a price, there's an IV. But if there's no demand, there is no price, and therefore no IV.
I thought it would be obvious to everyone that no demand = no price. No demand means nobody wants to buy it. If nobody wants to buy it, there is no bid. No bid means no price.
If anyone wishes to insist that you can have a bid greater than zero and at the same time no demand, then I'm afraid we're speaking two different languages.
dmo, I am very familiar with "what" IV "is" and how to use it, etc. Of course, I understand what you are saying, but I look at demand differently. For example, an expensive, volatile stock might have a high IV, yet the demand for options for the stock could be quite low - not to say there is no demand, but only a few people trade that particular stock - yet the IV is high.
On the other hand, there are stocks like JNJ, MMM, MSFT, EMC whatever, where there is alot of demand for the options, but the prices remain low (low IV) because the stocks aren't expected to move much. In other words, IV is exactly what it says it is - the Volatility that is being implied for that specific option.
For example, say there are 2 stocks - both at $50
One stock is heavily traded and the call and put volumes for the 50 strikes are about 2,000 per day.
The other stock is lightly trades, and the 50 calls and puts trade about 2-10 contracts per day.
Which stock has the higher IV?
You can't tell from this information - but clearly there is more "demand" for the options of the first stock.
On the other hand, if the 50 call for 3 months out for the first stock is say $300 and for the second stock it is $600, the IV is clearly higher for the second stock - the volatiilty that is implied is higher - the "demand" for the option as far as quantity bought is clearly much lower.
JJacksET4